1 Corinthians 6:9 Expounded & Interpretation Debunked
As modern English translations of the Holy Bible continue to proliferate, 1 Corinthians 6:9 is the worst NON-translation of any verse in Biblical history.
Here is a NON-translation if there ever was one:
“Do you not know that the unrighteous will not inherit the kingdom of God? Do not be deceived. Neither fornicators, nor idolaters, nor adulterers, nor homosexuals, nor sodomites, nor thieves, nor covetous, nor drunkards, nor revilers, nor extortioners will inherit the kingdom of God.” (1 Corinthians 6:9-10, NKJV)
Let’s look at a different NON-translation of the same verse. It is actually not a translation at all, but a paraphrase:
“Or do you not know that wrongdoers will not inherit the kingdom of God? Do not be deceived: Neither the sexually immoral nor idolaters nor adulterers nor men who have sex with men nor thieves nor the greedy nor drunkards nor slanderers nor swindlers will inherit the kingdom of God.” (1 Corinthians 6:9-10, NIV)
In this verse, Paul uses two Greek words, μαλακός malakos, and ἀρσενοκοίτης arsenokoitēs, translated:
- “homosexual” and “Sodomite” respectively in the New King James Version (NKJV);
- “effeminate” and “homosexuals” respectively in the New American Standard Bible (NASB); and
- “male prostitutes” and “Sodomites” respectively in the New Revised Standard Version (NRSV)
The English Standard Version does not even bother to translate these two (actually three) words individually. The “translators” simply shove them together and paraphrase them, ” men who practice homosexuality” (1 Corinthians 6:9, ESV). Where is the Greek word for “practice” in the text?
The New International Version (NIV) doesn’t bother to translate the two original words individually either. They, too, slam them all together, paraphrasing them as, “men who have sex with men.” Where is the original word “sex” in the text? (More on that later.)
The confusion is obvious.
Why did the NKJV translate μαλακός malakos as “homosexual,” but the NASB did not. Instead, it waited until the next compound word, ἀρσενοκοίτης arsenokoitēs, to randomly translate it as “homosexual.” Shouldn’t they be consistent? If a word means what it means, then there should not be these discrepant “judgment calls” (and that’s exactly what they are!) between versions.
And what about this Greek word μαλακός malakos that Paul uses first? It literally means “soft.” Jesus used this word when He was asking about John the Baptist’s clothing:
“But what did you go out to see? A man clothed in soft [μαλακός malakos] garments? Indeed, those who wear soft [μαλακός malakos] clothing are in kings’ houses.” (Matthew 11:8; Luke 7:25)
In the Greek text, μαλακός malakos, (literally “soft”) is translated “homosexual” in several modern English translations. The combination of two Greek words: ἄρσην arsēn, which literally means “male” or “man,” and κοίτη koitē, (which literally means “couch” or “bed”), is translated “homosexual” or “Sodomite,” depending on the version.
The actual compound term “homosexual” derives from two words. One is of Greek origin, and the other of Latin. “Homo-” (Greek homos) means “same,”, and “sexual,” is derived from Latin, sexus. So the term homosexual literally means, “same sex.”
How can the word “homosexual” be accurately used in the Bible when there is not even a literal Greek word for “sex” or “sexual” in it?! There is absolutely no equivalent to the term “homosexual” in these compound Greek/Latin to English word. It is, therefore, COMPLETELY UNJUSTIFIED to translate them as such!
What about the words “sex” and “sexual” used in other verses in a modern Bible translation?
Every time the word “sexual” is found in English translations, it has been interpolated into the text by the editors/translators. It derives from the Greek word πορνεία porneia, (where we get the word pornography). It is most often translated in older translations,“fornication” or in modern translations,“sexual immorality.” Yes, it is true that everywhere we see the Greek word πορνεία in the text, there is an association with “sexual” activity. But in virtually every case, this sexual activity is associated with idolatry and adultery.
Let’s look at them.
“But I say to you that whoever divorces his wife for any reason except sexual immorality [πορνεία porneia] causes her to commit adultery; and whoever marries a woman who is divorced commits adultery.” (Matthew 5:32, NKJV)
“And I say to you, whoever divorces his wife, except for sexual immorality, and marries another, commits adultery; and whoever marries her who is divorced commits adultery.” (Matthew 19:9, NKJV)
Jesus repeated this in two different conversations in the same gospel! And yet, how many self-righteous men who aggressively condemn gay people are guilty of breaking the rule that Jesus Himself set forth above? They condemn people in same-sex relationships to Hell, while they themselves are living in what Jesus considered adultery!
Later in the Book of Acts, when the self-righteous Pharisees were condemning converts for not keeping the Old Testament Law of Moses, Peter uses this word πορνεία porneia, translated “sexual immorality,” where every other word surrounding it refers to idol worship and pagan religious practices:
“Therefore I judge that we should not trouble those from among the Gentiles who are turning to God, 20 but that we write to them to abstain from things polluted by idols, from sexual immorality, from things strangled, and from blood.” (Acts 15:19-20 NKJV)
Let’s confer also with Acts 15:29; 21:25.
“It is actually reported that there is sexual immorality among you, and such sexual immorality as is not even named among the Gentiles—that a man has his father’s wife!” (1 Corinthians 5:1 NKJV)
This egregious act would also be considered adultery. The woman who is the father’s wife would be engaging in an adulterous act.
“Foods for the stomach and the stomach for foods, but God will destroy both it and them. Now the body is not for sexual immorality but for the Lord, and the Lord for the body.” (1 Corinthians 6:13, NKJV)
Paul is talking about IDOLATRY.
Anything meant “for the Lord,” but is given to something else instead of the Lord, entails idolatry. It (in this case, the human body) is given to that other thing, instead of to the Lord.
“Do you not know that your bodies are members of Christ? Shall I then take the members of Christ and make them members of a harlot? Certainly not! Or do you not know that he who is joined to a harlot is one body with her? For “the two,” He says, “shall become one flesh.” But he who is joined to the Lord is one spirit with Him. Flee sexual immorality. Every sin that a man does is outside the body, but he who commits sexual immorality sins against his own body. Or do you not know that your body is the temple of the Holy Spirit who is in you, whom you have from God, and you are not your own? For you were bought at a price; therefore glorify God in your body and in your spirit, which are God’s. (1 Corinthians 6:15-20, NKJV)
In the Bible as a whole, there is a direct association between “harlotry” and idol worship. In both Testaments, to “play the harlot” (E.g. Jeremiah 3:1, et al) meant to engage in idol worship. “Your body is the temple of the Holy Spirit…you were bought with a price” means your body belongs to God. It should not be given to any other god, in a sexual way or otherwise.
So who were these “soft-man-couches” Paul is talking about?
Paul’s Greek: arseno-koitae (“man-bed”) is NOT used by anyone else in extant literature. Here is a perfect example of English Bible translators’ interpolation in order to complete their own prejudiced thought – an interpolation based on inductive reasoning.
The word “Sodomite” can simply mean “one who comes from Sodom,” just as an Israelite is one who comes from Israel, or a “Hittite” (popular people in the O.T.) is from Hatti, (modern-day Anatolia). “Sodomite,” therefore, is pure interpolation because it has NOTHING TO DO WITH THE GREEK WORD THAT PAUL USED. Now, in order to meet modern understanding, English translators use the entirely unjustifiable word “homosexual” instead of Sodomite, because modern readers are no longer familiar with Sodom (especially those who have no familiarity with the Bible.)
Conclusion
The best way to think of the compound words “malakos-arseno-koite” (literally “soft”-“man”-“bed”) in 1 Corinthians 6:9 is that, Paul was referring to “male prostitutes” – ones who engaged in male temple cult prostitution in the Pagan religions that surrounded the Jews in ancient Israel and in 1st Century Rome and Corinth.
At least the New Revised Standard Version (NRSV) gets it half right. “Sodomite” is an interpolation, but “male prostitute” is much more appropriate guess at what ἀρσενοκοίτης arsenokoitēs actually referred to. Why do we say it’s a “guess?” Because that is what each and every modern English translation and paraphrase is doing. They are guessing. Why? Because they have no idea of what ἀρσενοκοίτης literally meant. To be academically honest, the most accurate concept that can be extrapolated from 1 Corinthians 6:9 was that men were doing something on a sofa, couch, or bed within the context of idol worship.
When Paul says, “Fornicators, idolaters, adulterers, male prostitutes, sodomites, thieves, the greedy, drunkards, revilers, robbers—none of these will inherit the kingdom of God” (1 Corinthians 6:9-10, NRSV), he means, none who continue unrepentantly to practice these things to the detriment of themselves or others. He means that people – both men and women — who have no intention of walking away from such a debauched lifestyle will inherit the Kingdom of God.
Paul was NOT referring to people with innate same-sex attraction. He was NOT referring to two males in a loving, caring relationship — who build a home together, who have a joint bank account, two dogs, and a picket fence in their front yard!
Come back to Jesus. Come back to Church!
So if you’ve been told that Jesus does not love and accept you as someone with same-sex attraction, ignore them, come back to Jesus, and seek out an open and accepting church! You’ll be so glad you did!